#1 RN Test "Medical Surgical Competency Exam"
Please circle all correct
answers that apply to the questions below.
1. Which of the
following laboratory tests would the nurse expect the patient to have to
determine the effects of Coumadin, a drug used with deep vein thrombosis?
1. Prothrombin time (PT)
2. Lee-White clotting time
3. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
4. Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT)
2. Which of the
following areas should the Nurse examine when assessing
Jaundice in a person with
a dark complexion?
1. Nail beds
2. Palms of hands
3. Hard palate
4. Soles of feet
3. Before he is
allowed to drink or eat, the stroke patients ability to swallow is elicited by
testing which of the following cranial neres?
1. Facial
2. Trigeminal
3. Hypoglossal
4. Glossopharyngeal
4. Pat has a T tube
inserted in the surgical wound. The most important
Nursing function in
caring for this tube is:
1. Recording quantity and color of
drainage
2. Changing the dressing every shift
3. Preventing the tube from kinking
4. Teaching client the reason for the tube
5. Which of
the following goal of care would not result in a lowered blood ammonia level?
1. Prevention of GI Bleed
2. Reduction of dietary protein intake
3. Avoidance of enemas and cathartics
4. Decrease in bacterial flora in the intestine
6. Mr. Smith has a
tumor of the descending colon and needs surgery. The Nurse administers
Neomycin Sulfate prior to his surgery in order to reduce:
1. Electrolyte imbalances
2. Bacterial content in the colon
3. Peristaltic action in the colon
4. Feces in the bowel
7. The nurse could
anticipate that which of the following patients might be prone to develop
digitalis intoxication?
1. Mr. G, who is constipated
2. Mrs. S, with a serum K of 4mEq
3. Mr. W, who is receiving Hydrodiuril
4. Mr. K, who is on oral hypoglycemic
8. When heparin is
being given, the nurse must have the following drug on hand:
1. Protamine sulfate
2. Sodium citrate
3. Vitamin K
4. Warfarin sodium
9. What elevated
laboratory finding would best support the diagnosis of renal failure?
1. Blood pH
2. Serum calcium
3. Blood urea nitrogen
4. Serum creatinine
10. A patient with
hypertension is begun on Hydrodiuril 0.5 mg qd. Which of The following
actions could the nurse institute without a doctors order?
1. Daily weight and I & O
2. Range of motion exercises
3. Elevate foot of bed 30 degrees
4. Walk with assistance
11. Aldomet,
an antihypertensive drug, is ordered for a patient. In instructing him
about the drug, the nurse should emphasize which of the following:
1. He should rise slowly from a lying
to a sitting position and from a Sitting to a standing position
2. He should skip a dosage of medication if he
begins feeling dizzy, weak and sleepy
3. He can alter his diet if necessary, as long as
he takes the anti-hypertensive drug
4. Alcohol consumption does not affect the action
of antihypertensive drugs
12. The nurse knows
that when the stroke patient is unable to appropriately
express his needs
verbally and to understand spoken or written words,
he has:
1. Aphasia
2. Agnosia
3. Apraxia
4. Ataxia
13. When assisting
a patient who is on Aldomet, to get out of bed, what
objective indicator can
the nurse use to evaluate the effect of
ambulation and detect
early postural hypotension?
1. Pupil response
2. Pulse rate
3. State of orientation
4. Increased muscle rigidity
14. Mr. Smith has
been experiencing pain associated with Angina Pectoris.
For what characteristic
picture of anginal pain would the nurse look for?
1. Requires a narcotic for pain
relief
2.
Is relieved by rest
3. Tends to radiate to the jaw
4. Lasts at least 30 minutes
15. The nurse knows
that following and M.I., the serum K would be elevated
because:
1. Potassium is retained due to decreased renal
function
2. Sodium ions are excreted to relieve edema,
3. Potassium is released from the cells following
destruction
4. Potassium increases metabolic alkalosis
16. The nurse knows
that the weakness, fatigue and pallor common in
Patients with leukemia
are due to:
1. Deficiency of platelets
2. Presence of infective process
3. Decreased erythrocyte production
4. Infiltration of peripheral nerves by cancer
17. A complication
that the nurse must watch for in patients receiving
chemotherapy is
crystallization of uric acid. Which of the following is
not a manifestation of
the complication?
1. Specific Gravity of 1,030
2. Urine output of 30-50 ml/ hour
3. Serum Creatinine of 3 mg/dl blood
4. Elevated blood urea nitrogen levels
18. Which of these
laboratory results may the nurse expect to find during
the initial phase of
hepatitis?
1. Increased LDH and CPK
2. Normal PT time
3. Elevated serum transaminase
4. Decreased alkaline phosphatase
19. The nurse
observes that Mr. Dunn has clay colored stools. The reason is
1. Hepatic uptake of bilirubin is
impaired
2. Excretion of fecal urobilnogen is increased
3. Conjugated bilirubin re-enters the bloodstream
4. Excretion of conjugated bilirubin into the
intestines is decreased
20. What could the
nurse do as emergency treatment if there is a chemical
burn to the eye?
1. Apply a sterile 4x4 over the injured eye
to prevent infection
2. Administer an antidote to slow down the
chemical reaction
3. Apply ice packs to retard absorption of the
chemical
4. Flush with water continuously
1.
Adnexa refers to:
a.
Adrenal glands
b.
Sympathetic nerve fibers
c.
Outer most layer
d.
Accessory organs
2.
Proximal is a tern that indicates a point
a.
Nearer to the body
b.
Farther away from the body
c.
In the center of the body
d.
Toward the head
3.
The periosteum is
a.
The membrane that covers bone
b.
The membrane that surrounds a joint
c.
The covering of the internal and external organs of the body and
the lining of vessels
d.
A fibrous connective tissue sheath.
4.
The artery at the back of the knee is the
a.
Popliteal
b.
femoral
c.
iliac
d.
celiac
5.
Why would an aspirated foreign body be more likely to enter the
right bronchorus rather than the left bronchorus?
a.
The right bronchus is more vertical, shorter, and wider that the
left.
b.
The division of the right bronchus is wider
c.
The right bronchus is longer
d.
The left bronchus is not in line with the trachea
6.
The spleen filters
a.
Antibodies
b.
Tissue fluid
c.
Lymph
d.
Blood
7.
When the gallbladder contracts, bile is ejected into the
a.
Liver
b.
Duodenum
c.
Jejunum
d.
Pancreas
8.
OSHA is a governmental regulating agency whose aim is to
a.
Provide guidelines to prevent transmission of blood-borne
infections
b.
Execute requirements designed to prevent transmission of
blood-borne pathogens in the work environment.
c.
Require that communicable diseases be reported to a public health
agency.
d.
Train employees how to recognize and execute safe practices.
9.
The minimum distance a nonsterile person should remain from a
sterile field is
a.
6 inches
b.
1 foot
c.
2 feet
d.
3 feet
10.
Identify which of the following is not safe practice
a.
Discard opened sterile bottles
b.
Sterile persons drape first toward themselves, than away
c.
Sterile person face sterile areas
d.
Sterile table may be covered for later use.
11.
Tables are considered sterile
a.
On the top and 2 inches below the table level
b.
Up to 2 feet off the ground
c.
On the top and in the area that has been pulled close to the
sterile field
d.
Only on the top
12.
If a solution soaks through a sterile drape
a.
Discard drape and replace it
b.
Cover wet area with impervious sterile drape or towel
c.
Cover wet area with at least two layers of fabric
d.
Fill out an incident report at the end of the case
13.
The pounds of pressure necessary in a steam sterilizer set at 250
F is
a.
15-17
b.
20-22
c.
22-25
d.
25-27
14.
When a steam is used to sterilize a rubber tubing or catheter
a.
The lumen must be dried thoroughly before the process begins
b.
A rubber band may be placed around it so it does not unwind
c.
It should be fan-folded before wrapping
d.
A residual of distilled water should be left inside the lumen
15.
The room temperature in an operating room (OR) should be
a.
Below 50 F
b.
Below 60 F
c.
Between 68-76 F
d.
Between 80 and 86 F
16.
If an OR Staff member wears eyeglass
a.
The glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution before
each operation.
b.
The glasses should be soaked for 5 minutes in an antiseptic
solutions before the day begins.
c.
The glasses should be wiped with an antiseptic solution daily.
d.
No special care is necessary.
17.
Each statement regarding OR attire is true EXCEPT:
a.
Lab coats worn out of the OR suite should be clean, closed, and
knee length.
b.
Scrubs suits are always changed upon re-entry to the OR suites
c.
Scrub suits may be worn out of the OR uncovered, if they are
changed upon OR re-entry
d.
Non-professional personnel and visitors must wear approved attire
in the OR
18.
Sterile gloves
a.
Should be wiped off after donning to remove lubricant
b.
Need not be wiped off
c.
Should be wiped-off only in septic cases
d.
Should be wiped off only in eye cases
19.
When moving the patient from the OR table, who is responsible for
guarding the head and neck from injury?
a.
Circulating nurse
b.
Scrub nurse
c.
Anesthesiologist
d.
Surgical technician
20.
Crossing the patients arms across his or her chest may cause
a.
Pressure on the ulnar nerve
b.
Interference with circulation
c.
Postoperative discomfort
d.
Interference with respiration
21.
During lateral positioning, a
a.
A pillow is placed between the legs
b.
Sandbag is placed between the knees
c.
Rolled towel is place under the bottom leg.
d.
Sheet is folded flat between the legs.
22.
When using an arm board, the most important measure is to
a.
Support the arm at the intravenous site
b.
Strap the patients hand to it securely
c.
Avoid hyperextension of the arm
d.
Avoid hypoextension of the arm
23.
Anesthetized patients should be moved slowly to
a.
Prevent fractures
b.
Prevent circulatory overload
c.
Allow the respiratory system to adjust
d.
Allow the circulatory system to adjust.
24.
A type of cross match is done
a.
On all surgical patients
b.